There is only one correct answer

It also doesn't matter as it is not asking for the chance that hit one is a crit or hit two is a crit, just that either is a crit and the chance of the other being a crit.

50%

C = Critical
N = Non-Critical

Since one is a guaranteed critical, that leaves us the following possibilities.
> CC
> CN
> NC

Therefore, a one-third chance. And before anyone tries to tell me it's 50% because CN and NC are the same, you're wrong. The problem description only says that at least one is a critical. It doesn't specify which one.

0% the crit chance is 50% and you already got one.

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66%

joke's on mr. hall, i wanted sex with the goat more than i wanted the car anyway

1/8

at least one of the hits is a crit, so you can completely ignore nocrit, nocrit
pic related

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25%

50%. It’s a trick question. Since you know the outcome of one already, you ONLY focus on the mystery one. Which as we know, is 50%. You flip two coins, one is heads. What are the odds the other is heads as well? 50% which is the odds for ANY coin flip, regardless of what other results are

it's definitely less than 50%. When a videogame says 50%, it really means 5%.

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41%

not if crit, crit exists

This. If one is a crit the probably of that event is now 1. Therefore 1 * .5

what?

>completely ignore nocrit, nocrit
not if crit, crit exists

beat me to it

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the question gives you that every outcome has at least one crit. crit, crit is one of those outcomes, but nocrit, nocrit isn't.

Flipping a coin twice is 50/50 both times.

50%
either the first hit is a crit and the second isn't
the first isn't a crit and the second one is
the first is the guarenteed crit and the second crits
or the first is a crit and the second one is the guarenteed crit

This is a solved problem. Or, rather, the way in which you can get different answers due to interpreting the problem in different ways is well documented.

It's also based on the "Boy or Girl paradox" so it's not even original. This thread is worthless in every possible way.

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50% chance that only one is a crit.
25% chance of no crits at all.
25% chance of both hits being crits.

Simplify the question. This is very simple algebra.

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You're not simplifying the question. You're changing it.

based and numericalanalysispilled

This. Autistic math shouldn’t be forced to riddle when it only works in theory

My simulation agrees with the 25%

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That's simplifying it. If one hit is a guaranteed crit, and you're asking for the probability of multiple crits, you can safely cancel one of those crits from the equation. Like I said. This is simple algebra.

You're fucking retarded. That's the probability is one of them is 100% a crit. But it isn't What are you, European or something? How could you be this retarded?

Wait a minute OP, this sounds like applied mathematics, you're not trying to give us an education, are you?

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Based image.
So the right answer is 36.1% right?

0%. I killed the enemy on the first hit because I'm not a pussy.

It's not a math problem. It's a language interpretation problem. You will notice there are many problems that use the same formula, they all use different numbers but the same crutch in their structure: they always use the narrative present to describe events that are already on-going and then ask whether the events that have already happened should be considered guaranteed. These problems suddenly stop becoming divisive if they are forced to be re-written completely in the past tense or in the future tense, with no present narrative trickery to confuse the mind about what ought to be considered conditional or guaranteed.

That's because your code is a simulation of a scenario in which the second of two hits is guaranteed to be a critical hit if the first one was not. It's the same as the first simulation in . One could imagine a game being programmed this way, but the problem doesn't explicitly state that this is how the game works.

BASED

no, the order they happen in isn't relevant, which means 2 of the possible outcomes are essentially the same and count as one possible outcome

anyone not saying 50% is a troll or legitimately retarded and will never have a career in a math heavy field

if it doesn't specify which one then they count as the same thing, idiot
it's 1/3 if it specifies which one

It's not algebra, but okay.

The correct explanation of your interpretation of the problem is that you're assuming "at least one hit is a crit" means we know that one of the particular hits (e.g. the first) was a crit and can disregard it when computing the odds of the other hit being a crit. Unfortunately, the whole point of the problem is that there's more than one interpretation, the other being that we don't know which of the hits was a crit, which means we can't disregard one of the hits entirely and can only eliminate the possibility of no crits having occurred. This interpretation yields an answer of 1/3 because, of four otherwise equally possible outcomes -- let's call them HH, HC, CH, CC -- only HH is eliminated.

See: (You).
See also: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boy_or_Girl_paradox

winrar and underrated

Depending how the game is coded, it could be 25%.

33%

50%, they either do or they don't

No that's now how it works you retard

It's established in the problem that, in effect, one of the crits has a 100% chance of happening, the other has a 50%. If something happens 100% of the time, and something else happens 50% of the time, then the chance of both happening is 50%. This doesn't apply to all sets of 2 hits, but that's irrelevant to a problem that asks the outcome for a particular set where at least one is a crit.

Maybe take a probability course some time user

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One is guaranteed so it basically down to 50% crit hit, which is just 50%.

You are far too stupid for your own good.

>The intuitive answer is one half and, when making the most natural assumptions, this is correct

The question says given one is a crit what is the probability that both are crits. Order doesn't matter

You're failing to refute anything I wrote. Also, the part of the Wikipedia article you're quoting isn't even about the original variation of the problem.

100% because I savescum.

75%

>One is guaranteed
LMFAO!

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You're missing the point of my post, which was simply that the problem presented in the original post is obviously a rewording of a very well known problem which is famous specifically for the fact that it has two possible interpretations. Restating one interpretation (which I already mentioned in my post) doesn't change anything.

user, I'm 33 and already retired because I'm far beyond your level of intelligence. In fact I more or less consider stupid people like yourself as a different species beneath me.

>From the position of statistical analysis the relevant question is often ambiguous and as such there is no “correct” answer

50% duh you fucking stupid americans

So you're agreeing with my claim that the problem is ambiguous? Okay, good. Enjoy fake retirement.

Obsessed

I made this for the brainlet

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>counts crit/crit twice
>is a phone poster
Idiot.

There's a rationale for saying the answer is 50%, but that isn't even it. You don't understand statistics.