quick break down: europe was first populated by neanderthals, then humans came who killed them all, we call those the old europeans/pre indo europeans/neolithic farmers
then, around 5-4000 years ago the aryans started invading, they were one of the subgroups of old europeans that conquered the rest, and either massacred or mixed with the natives depending on the case
100% of european language and culture is indo european/aryan, they conquered everything from britany to india and western china, so they re a pretty big deal
(indo european just means aryan btw, the use of the word indo european instead of aryan was forced after the end of ww2, indo european just use to reffer to languages, and aryan to the people who originally spoke it, now indo european stands for both, and it creates confusion on purpuse, implying that dravidians and europeans are somehow related)
aryan ancestry is mainly characterized by R-R1a-R1b haplogroups
NOW HERE COMES THE IMPORTANT PART:
the germanic people were mainly in scandinavia in antiquity, not in modern germany, and when you look at the haplogroups of the areas occupied by germanics in our earliest records, what do you find...?
YOU FIND THAT THE GERMANIC AREAS HAVE A NON ARYAN PRE ARYAN EUROPEAN HAPLOGROUP
GERMANICS ARE I2, NOT any kind of R
this means a few things
>germanics were not massacred by the aryans, and either were conquered and adopted their culture (most likely) or just adopted their language and culture without being conquered (less likely)
>germans are aryans who were later conquered by germanics LARPING as germanics
>this means germans are not nordic
>this means "nordics are the purest aryan race' is quite literally the OPPOSITE of reality
>this would explain why germanics were so backwards compared to everyone else during antiquity, just compare celts or greeks to germanics during the same period... yeah
discuss.